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Posted by James 5:16 on April 27, 2002 at 17:55:59:

In Reply to: Re: GOD IS JUST LIKE SANTA CLAUS posted by C. Augusto Valdés on April 27, 2002 at 14:20:57:

: Of course I know the Bible! I have read it and I have been in a Bible discussion group.

I'm glad that you have taken the time to read the material here. I have too. I appreciate an educated discussion.

As long as I have been a catholic I don't have proof yet of someone actually returning from the dead and making such a factual description of the afterlife.

True. This is an issue of faith for the Christian. In this regard, I don't have a proof any more than you do about this. It's an issue of faith. I cannot have such a proof for you, at least not at this time. Perhaps one day, we will be able to so that one of us will be able to prove to the other the truth. But for now, we each have faith in our own "truth's". We'll rely on that.

I know the nine circles of hell are nowhere in the Bible, they are from Alighieri,

Also true.

and all what we know about afterlife we must owe to Milton.

Not true. The "afterlife" is widely described in the majority of the Bible. Its interpretation is as diverse as any of denominations of Islam, Judaism, and Christianity. Milton gave us one such interpretation. The most widely accepted is of a Heaven/Hell location. How you get to which also varies greatly depending on your religion.

I don't doubt there is a cause for existence, what i doubt is if that 'cause for all'
choose the people from Israel above everyone else or if hesheit wants everyone to sing and revere himherit.

I would really like to discuss this because this looks interesting, but I'm pretty sure I don't understand what you mean completely. Could you help me?

: I say, there is no proof beyond the written word, and there is no proof that word comes actually from God.
: And you may say: "There is faith."
: And I say: I also had faith in Santa and that didn't make him real.

Now, what you say is true in your first statement. It's considered axiomatic to a Christian, namely, it's considered true without need of proof. All logic has to start with such base axioms. In this case, what are they?

I want to know so we can have a discussion of two equals.

Anyway, thanks for reading (and hopefully responding),

James 5:16

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